<TEI xmlns="http://www.tei-c.org/ns/1.0" xmlns:py="http://codespeak.net/lxml/objectify/pytype" py:pytype="TREE"><text xml:lang="eng"><body><div type="translation" xml:lang="eng" n="urn:cts:latinLit:phi0474.phi008.perseus-eng2" subtype="translation"><div type="textpart" subtype="section" n="91" resp="perseus"><p> Why, then, in that interdict which is of almost daily occurrence,
    “whence he drove me by violence,” is this added, “when I was in possession,” if no one can be
    driven away who is not in possession; or why is not the same addition made to the interdict
    “about armed men,” if inquiry ought to be made whether a man was the owner or no? You say that
    no man can be driven away, but one who is the owner. I assert that, if any one be driven away
    without men being collected and armed, then he who confesses that he has driven him away must
    gain his cause, if he can show that he was not the owner. You say that a man cannot be driven
    away unless he is the owner. I prove from this interdict “about armed men,” that he, who can
    prove that the man who has been driven away was not the owner, still must inevitably lose his
    cause, if he confesses that he was driven away at all. </p></div><milestone n="32" unit="chapter" resp="yonge"/><div type="textpart" subtype="section" n="92" resp="perseus"><p><milestone unit="para"/>Men are driven away in two ways, either without the employment of men collected together and
    armed, or by means of them, and by violence. There are two separate interdicts for two
    dissimilar cases. In the first and formal kind of violence, it is not enough for a man to be
    able to prove that he was driven away, unless he is also able to show that he was driven away
    when he was in possession. And even that is not enough, unless he can show that he was in
    possession, having become so neither by violence, nor by underhand practices, nor by having
    begged the property. Therefore, he who said that he had replaced him is often accustomed to avow
    loudly that he drove him away by violence; but he adds this, “He was not in possession.” Or
    again, when he has admitted even this, still he gains his cause if he can prove that the man had
    obtained possession from him either by violence, or by underhand practices, or by begging for
    it. </p></div><div type="textpart" subtype="section" n="93" resp="perseus"><p> Do you not perceive how many defensive pleas our
    ancestors allowed a man to be able to employ who had done this violence without arms and without
    a multitude? But as for the man who, neglecting right, and duty, and proper customs, has betaken
    himself to the sword, to arms, and to murder, him you see naked and defenceless in the cause; so
    that the man who has contended in arms for the possession, must clearly contend unarmed in the
    court of justice. Is there, then, any real difference, O
     <persName><surname>Piso</surname></persName>, between these interdicts? Does it make any
    difference whether the words “As Aulus Caecina was in possession” be added, or not? Does the
    consideration of right,—does the dissimilarity of the interdicts,—does the authority of your
    ancestors, at all influence you? If the addition had been made, inquiry must have been made as
    to this point. The addition has not been made. Must that inquiry still be instituted? </p></div><div type="textpart" subtype="section" n="94" resp="perseus"><p> And in this particular I do not defend Caecina. For, O judges, Caecina
    was in possession; and although it is foreign to this cause, still I will briefly touch upon
    this point, to make you as desirous to protect the man himself, as the common rights of all men.
    You do not deny that Caesennia had a life interest in the farm. As the same farmer who rented it
    of Caesennia continued to hold it on the same tenure, is there any doubt, that if Caesennia was
    the owner while the farmer was tenant of the farm, so after her death her heir was the owner by
    the same right? Afterwards Caecina, when he was going the round of his estates, came to that
    farm. He received his accounts from the farmer. There is evidence to that point. </p></div><div type="textpart" subtype="section" n="95" resp="perseus"><p> After that, why, O. Aebutius, did you give notice to Caecina to give up
    that farm, rather than some others, if you could find any other, unless Caecina was in
    possession of it? Moreover, why did Caecina consent to be ejected in a regular and formal
    manner? and why did he make you the answer he did by the advice of his friends, and of Caius
    Aquillius himself? <milestone n="33" unit="chapter" resp="yonge"/>
   <milestone unit="para"/>Oh, but Sulla passed a law. Without wasting time in making any complaints about that time, and
    about the disasters of the republic, I make you this answer,—that Sulla also added to that same
    law, “that if anything were enacted in this statute contrary to law, to that extent this statute
    was to have no validity.” What is there which is contrary to law which the Roman people is
    unable to command or to prohibit? Not to digress too far, this very additional clause proves
    that there is something. For unless there were, this would not be appended to all statutes.
     </p></div></div></body></text></TEI>