<TEI xmlns="http://www.tei-c.org/ns/1.0" xmlns:py="http://codespeak.net/lxml/objectify/pytype" py:pytype="TREE"><text xml:lang="eng"><body><div type="translation" xml:lang="eng" n="urn:cts:latinLit:phi0474.phi003.perseus-eng2"><div type="textpart" subtype="section" n="51" resp="perseus"><p>Roscius, then, suborned
            Cluvius as a false witness. Why did he do it so late? Why did he do so when the second
            payment was to be made, not when the first was? for already he had paid fifty thousand
            sesterce. Secondly; if Cluvius was, by this time, persuaded to tell lies, why did he say
            that a hundred thousand <foreign xml:lang="lat">sesterces</foreign> had been given to Fannius
            by Flavius, rather than three hundred thousand; when, according to the mutual agreement,
            a half-share of it belonged to Roscius. By this time you see, O Caius Piso, that Roscius
            had made his demand for himself alone, and had made no demand for the partnership. When
            Saturius perceives that this is proved, he does not dare to resist and struggle against
            the truth. He finds another subterfuge of dishonesty and treachery in the same track.</p></div><div type="textpart" subtype="section" n="52" resp="perseus"><p>“I admit,” says he,
            “that Roscius demanded his own share from Flavius; I admit that he left
            Fannius's right to make a similar demand entire and unimpaired; but I contend that what
            he got for himself became the common property of the partnership” than which
            nothing more tricky or more scandalous can be said. For I ask whether Roscius had the
            power to demand his share from the partnership, or not? If he could not, how did he get
            it? If he could, how was it that he did not demand it for himself? For that which is
            demanded for one's self, is certainly not exacted for another.</p></div><div type="textpart" subtype="section" n="53" resp="perseus"><p>Is it so? If he had made a demand of what belonged to the entire
            partnership, all would equally have shared what then came in. Now, when he demanded what
            was a part of his own share, did he not demand for himself alone what he got? <milestone n="18" unit="chapter" resp="yonge"/><milestone unit="Para"/>What is the difference between him who goes to law for himself, and him who is assigned
            as agent for another? He who commences an action for himself, makes his demand for
            himself alone. No one can prefer a claim for another except him who is constituted his
            agent. Is it not so? If her had been your agent, you would get your own, because he had
            gained the action. But he preferred this claim in his own name; so what he got he got
            for himself, and not for you.</p></div><div type="textpart" subtype="section" n="54" resp="perseus"><p>But if any one can make
            a claim on behalf of another, who is not appointed his agent, I ask why then, when
            Panurgus was slain, and an action was commenced against Fannius on the plea of injury
            sustained by the loss, you were made the agent of Roscius for that action? especially
            when, according to what you now say, whatever claim you made for yourself you made for
            him; whatever recompense you exacted for yourself, would belong to the partnership. But
            if nothing would have come to Roscius which you had got from Flavius, unless he had
            appointed you agent for his action, so nothing ought to come to you which Roscius has
            exacted for his share, since he was not appointed your agent.</p></div><div type="textpart" subtype="section" n="55" resp="perseus"><p>For what answer can you make to this case, O Fannius? When Roscius
            settled with Flavius for his own share, did he leave you your right of action, or not?
            If he did not leave it you, how was it that you afterwards exacted a hundred thousand
              <foreign xml:lang="lat">sesterces</foreign> from him? If he did leave it, why do you claim
            from him what you ought to demand and follow up yourself? For partnership is very like
            inheritance, and, as it were, its twin sister. As a partner has a share in a
            partnership, so an heir has a share in an inheritance. As an heir prefers a claim for
            himself alone, and not for his co-heirs, so a partner prefers a claim for himself alone,
            and not for his partners. And as each prefers a claim for his own share, so he makes
            payments for his share alone; the heir, out of the share which he has received of the
            inheritance the partner, out of that property with which he entered into the
            partnership.</p></div></div></body></text></TEI>