Could an Englishman possibly use the tense I have... in sentences such as either of these? We must therefore be prepared to find even the Greek aorist and perfect occasionally approximating in their meanings, and frequently, at one or another stage of the language, impossible to render into English each by a single tense-form of our own.

The tenses in other moods than the indicative (as the perfects κεκλήσθω, iv. 1, κεκακῶσθαι, liii. 7) need not detain US: on ’u’xpa’yov see note on vi. 3, comparing Moulton, p. 147. The participles are for the most part ordinary: the active perf. participle (in form) occurs roughly speaking about forty times in Isaiah; but of these more than half are instances of πεποιθώς, which is frequently used with tenses of εἰμὶ to form equivalents for finite forms. ἰσχυκότες, viii. 9, is unexpected and may be considered awkward, but cannot be fairly called irregular. Apart from πέποιθα, βεβούλευμαι (iii. 9, xiv. 24., 26, 27, xlvi. 10, 11) and πέπαυται (xxiv. 8, xxvi. to, xxxii. to, xxxiii. 8) are the commonest finite perfects; the required meaning, of course, accounting for this.

τοῦ with infin. mostly stands for Heb. ABBREVwith infin.; very occasionally for D with infin. (privativc sense), which is oftener τοῦ μή. Notice the doubt as to the insertion of μὴ in viii. 16, xxv. 2 (Heb. ABBREVand ABBREVwith nouns), and the variant τὸ with infin., apparently consecutive, in xxi. 3.

(In the phrases Ζῶ ἐγώ, xlix. 18, ᾖ κύριος, the verb is indicative; the Latin is vivo ego, and this agrees with Heb. Contrast 2 Sam. xvi. 16 1 Kings i. 39, &c.)

Note the subj. following a future in x. 14, and the optatives in xi. 9 XXI. Ι.