Could an Englishman possibly use the tense I have... in sentences
such as either of these? We must therefore be prepared to find even

 
the Greek aorist and perfect occasionally approximating in their
meanings, and frequently, at one or another stage of the language,
impossible to render into English each by a single tense-form of
our own. The tenses in other moods than the indicative (as the perfects
κεκλήσθω, iv. 1, κεκακῶσθαι, liii. 7) need not detain US: on ’u’xpa’yov
see note on vi. 3, comparing Moulton, p. 147. The participles are for
the most part ordinary: the active perf. participle (in form) occurs
roughly speaking about forty times in Isaiah; but of these more than
half are instances of πεποιθώς, which is frequently used with tenses of
εἰμὶ to form equivalents for finite forms. ἰσχυκότες, viii. 9, is unexpected
and may be considered awkward, but cannot be fairly called irregular.
Apart from πέποιθα, βεβούλευμαι (iii. 9, xiv. 24., 26, 27, xlvi. 10, 11) and
πέπαυται (xxiv. 8, xxvi. to, xxxii. to, xxxiii. 8) are the commonest
finite perfects; the required meaning, of course, accounting for this. τοῦ with infin. mostly stands for Heb. ABBREV with infin.; very occasionally
for D with infin. (privativc sense), which is oftener τοῦ μή. Notice the
doubt as to the insertion of μὴ in viii. 16, xxv. 2 (Heb. ABBREV and ABBREV with
nouns), and the variant τὸ with infin., apparently consecutive, in xxi. 3. (In the phrases Ζῶ ἐγώ, xlix. 18, ᾖ κύριος, the verb is indicative; the
Latin is vivo ego, and this agrees with Heb. Contrast 2 Sam. xvi. 16
1 Kings i. 39, &c.) Note the subj. following a future in x. 14, and the optatives in xi. 9
XXI. Ι.