<TEI xmlns="http://www.tei-c.org/ns/1.0" xmlns:py="http://codespeak.net/lxml/objectify/pytype" py:pytype="TREE"><text xml:lang="eng"><body><div type="translation" n="urn:cts:greekLit:tlg0059.tlg006.perseus-eng2" xml:lang="eng"><div type="textpart" subtype="section" resp="perseus" n="205"><milestone unit="page" resp="Stephanus" n="205"/><milestone n="205a" unit="section" resp="Stephanus"/><p><said who="#Socrates"><label>SOC.</label> You are putting up a brave fight, Theaetetus.  But is not the all precisely that of which nothing is wanting?</said></p><p><said who="#Theaetetus"><label>THEAET.</label> Necessarily.</said></p><p><said who="#Socrates"><label>SOC.</label> And is not just this same thing, from which nothing whatsoever is lacking, a whole?  For that from which anything is lacking is neither a whole nor all, which have become identical simultaneously and for the same reason.</said></p><p><said who="#Theaetetus"><label>THEAET.</label> I think now that there is no difference between all and whole.</said></p><p><said who="#Socrates"><label>SOC.</label> We were saying, were we not, that if there are parts of anything, the whole and all of it will be all the parts?</said></p><p><said who="#Theaetetus"><label>THEAET.</label> Certainly.</said></p><p><said who="#Socrates"><label>SOC.</label> Once more, then, as I was trying to say just now, if the syllable is not the letters, does it not follow necessarily
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that it contains the letters, not as parts of it, or else that being the same as the letters, it is equally knowable with them?</said></p><p><said who="#Theaetetus"><label>THEAET.</label> It does.</said></p><p><said who="#Socrates"><label>SOC.</label> And it was in order to avoid this that we assumed that it was different from them?</said></p><p><said who="#Theaetetus"><label>THEAET.</label> Yes.</said></p><p><said who="#Socrates"><label>SOC.</label> Well then, if the letters are not parts of the syllable, can you mention any other things which are parts of it, but are not the letters <note anchored="true" resp="Loeb">The reader is reminded that words <foreign xml:lang="grc">στοιχεῖον</foreign> and <foreign xml:lang="grc">συλλαβή</foreign> have the meanings <q type="emph">element</q> and <q type="emph">combination</q> as well as <q type="emph">letter</q> and <q type="emph">syllable.</q></note> of it?</said></p><p><said who="#Theaetetus"><label>THEAET.</label> Certainly not.  For if I grant that there are parts of the syllable, it would be ridiculous to give up the letters and look for other things as parts.</said></p><milestone n="205c" unit="section" resp="Stephanus"/><p><said who="#Socrates"><label>SOC.</label> Without question, then, Theaetetus, the syllable would be, according to our present view, some indivisible concept.</said></p><p><said who="#Theaetetus"><label>THEAET.</label> I agree.</said></p><p><said who="#Socrates"><label>SOC.</label> Do you remember, then, my friend, that we admitted a little while ago, on what we considered good grounds, that there can be no rational explanation of the primary elements of which other things are composed, because each of them, when taken by itself, is not composite, and we could not properly apply to such an element even the expression <q type="emph">be</q> or <q type="emph">this,</q> because these terms are different and alien, and for this reason it is irrational and unknowable?</said></p><p><said who="#Theaetetus"><label>THEAET.</label> I remember.</said></p><milestone n="205d" unit="section" resp="Stephanus"/><p><said who="#Socrates"><label>SOC.</label> And is not this the sole reason why it is single in form and indivisible?  I can see no other.</said></p><p><said who="#Theaetetus"><label>THEAET.</label> There is no other to be seen.</said></p><p><said who="#Socrates"><label>SOC.</label> Then the syllable falls into the same class with the letter, if it has no parts and is a single form?</said></p><p><said who="#Theaetetus"><label>THEAET.</label> Yes, unquestionably.</said></p><p><said who="#Socrates"><label>SOC.</label> If, then, the syllable is a plurality of letters and is a whole of which the letters are parts, the syllables and the letters are equally knowable and expressible, if all the parts were found to be the same as the whole.</said></p><milestone n="205e" unit="section" resp="Stephanus"/><p><said who="#Theaetetus"><label>THEAET.</label> Certainly.</said></p><p><said who="#Socrates"><label>SOC.</label> But if one and indivisible, then syllable and likewise letter are equally irrational and unknowable;  for the same cause will make them so.</said></p><p><said who="#Theaetetus"><label>THEAET.</label> I cannot dispute it.</said></p><p><said who="#Socrates"><label>SOC.</label> Then we must not accept the statement of any one who says that the syllable is knowable and expressible, but the letter is not.</said></p><p><said who="#Theaetetus"><label>THEAET.</label> No, not if we are convinced by our argument.</said></p></div></div></body></text></TEI>